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Deleted member 16771
What would you answer to somebody who objected that empirical truths are dependent on the senses, and that the senses can betray us, be illusory, etc.?
Can synthetic statements really be known a priori?
By the way, if anyone hasn't read John Locke's Essay Concerning Human Understanding, I heartily recommend it as an introduction to epistemology. I really enjoyed it.
I think you're (or rather, your unnamed objector) conflating two issues here - the difference between truth and knowing truth. Or maybe you aren't? Actually that difference is difficult to parse isn't it?
Suppose we had a being with perfect senses - an omniscient being. Would the truth discernable by that being differ to the truth we are capable of?
In other words, what we've come down to is the same distinction, between objective truth and subjective truth.
For me, there is a clear logical order here - subjective truth presupposes objective truth; objective truth determines subjective truth.
Now imagine if you think that it is subjective truth which is logically precedent. Well then you have a situation in which you have to claim that the universe is generated by the subject, which hardly makes sense outside some thought experiments.
We intuitively know that this can't be the case, since Ren can say things which I can't think of before he says them (he knows things I don't), so how can I generate a reality with a Ren in it?