o2b
Permanent Fixture
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Three thoughts.Apologies for getting back to this a little late.
I think he redeemed man because although "fully man", he died sinless. It is true that he has to possess the traits of that which has been condemned. It gets more complicated when we ask ourselves whether Jesus was, in fact, capable of sin. Since he is "fully man", he should be capable of sin; but since he is also "fully God", he shouldn't be. I suspect that some of the non-Orthodox views stressing the humanity of Jesus over (or against) his divinity have their basis in the coherence of atonement. The Orthodox view would probably have to say that he was both capable and incapable of sin, and that this is precisely why redemption was possible.
St. Anselm has an interesting theory of atonement. Citing Encyclopedia Britannica:
Anselm held that Jesus’ death on the cross was absolutely necessary because there was no other rationally intelligible way in which sinful humankind could have been reconciled with God. If God in his mercy had simply forgiven humans for their sin, God’s moral order would have been repudiated. God’s righteousness, offended by human sin, demanded satisfaction; that satisfaction could be rendered only by someone who was both God—because God could overcome sin by sinlessness—and human—because humans were those who were guilty of sin. Anselm’s theory was also significant for presenting a comprehensive system that focused on the interrelationship between God, Jesus, and humankind; Satan and the notion of Jesus dying a substitutionary death for humankind had been avoided.
One - How Christ Was Victorious
If one subscribes to the view that Christ did not possess two natures, one divine and one human, at the same time, there would seem to have to be some explanation for His victory as a man.
Revelation 5:1-5
And I saw in the right hand of Him who sat on the throne a scroll written inside and on the back, sealed with seven seals. 2 Then I saw a strong angel proclaiming with a loud voice, “Who is worthy to open the scroll and to loose its seals?” 3 And no one in heaven or on the earth or under the earth was able to open the scroll, or to look at it.
4 So I wept much, because no one was found worthy to open and read the scroll, or to look at it. 5 But one of the elders said to me, “Do not weep. Behold, the Lion of the tribe of Judah, the Root of David, has prevailed to open the scroll and to loose its seven seals.”
So, if Christ was emptied of His divine attributes, how can His pre-incarnate identity play into this? It would seem it has to since the above Scripture ties in His victory to who He was, by implication - no other being could have been victorious.
I suggest the only explanation is that there must be some science involving His pre-incarnate identity as the only begotten Son of God and the occurrence and the substance of His faith the moment He developed to the level of moral conscious existence.
Otherwise, it seems to me the above text is a sham. If there is no science involved, then what of His faith? Did God inject Him with it? And if He did, why could He not have done the same with (say) the angel Gabriel and had him survive the earthly ordeal?
Two - Could Christ Sin
I don't think He could have. I think sin was available to Him in the sense that He was subject to temptation, but I don't think it was available to Him in the sense that His faith had the possibility of faltering.
To me, the alternative means we got lucky. Like if one was statistical about it and hypothetically redid Christ's life an infinite number of times and observed for success and failure. Say 15% of the time was a failure.
We got lucky!
Three - Anselm's View
This seems to me to follow a legal model with a high level of substitution.
I suggest a healing model where the cross was an event wherein Christ manufactured all the grace fully capable of making any person of faith perfectly righteous. If so, the challenges to such a view are:
1) What is this grace and is there a solid explanation for how it is well able to perform such a work?
2) Why has this grace been unavailable?
I am building a case for this. It requires a fair amount of support. Gonna be a while.
But, to me, this has been the liability of what some refer to as The Moral Persuasion view of the atonement that I think was first advanced by a guy named Abelard.
What is lacking is some organic connection between the cross and moral persuasion.