Yeah, and read on. The Senate can propose or concur with amendments on other bills.Article 1, section 7.
I'm having a hard time following you here.Yeah, and read on. The Senate can propose or concur with amendments on other bills.
The way it works is both the Senate and the House draft their own versions of the bill, and then Senate adopts the House version of the bill, not the other way around.
The Senate is allowed to bring up the idea, then both the House and Senate draft it, and if it makes it through the House, the Senate adopts their wording.
Appropriation bills begin with H.R., because they originate in the House.
Then I guess I misunderstood what you were saying.I'm having a hard time following you here.
You are implying that appropriation bills have never originated in the Senate?
What you just describe was an example of something passing from the House to the Senate, not said legislation originating in the Senate.
Can you explain to me what you mean by originate? Originate as in draft the bill? Or whatI think we have a misunderstanding.
I'll use a specific example.
The 2008 bailout bill.
The tax portion of this bill originated in the Senate.
Put forth by a member of the Senate.Can you explain to me what you mean by originate? Originate as in draft the bill? Or what
Do you understand how the bailout passed? House vetoed the first bill. Senate then amended HR 1424 (I think) to avoid article 1 section 7, and it passed in the senate. Senate amended a bill already passed by the House. The house then got to review the bill, with the senate amendments, and the House voted it through. Perfectly constitutional.Put forth by a member of the Senate.
It has nothing to do with the Senate passing it "first" or not, it has everything to do with the fact that it was written in the Senate.Do you understand how the bailout passed? House vetoed the first bill. Senate then amended HR 1424 (I think) to avoid article 1 section 7, and it passed in the senate. Senate amended a bill already passed by the House. The house then got to review the bill, with the senate amendments, and the House voted it through. Perfectly constitutional.
Senate didn't pass it first. The House passed the bill first, Senate amended it, House voted through the amendments.
Anyone can write a bill. This is a common known fact. It's all over google and I can give you a plethora of links for it if you so like.It has nothing to do with the Senate passing it "first" or not, it has everything to do with the fact that it was written in the Senate.
Furthermore, your posts so far have been irritating, for the lack of sourcing.
I have a hard time believing these are all your original words.
So I would appreciate seeing where they came from, simply for the purposes of debate.
It has nothing to do with the Senate passing it "first" or not, it has everything to do with the fact that it was written in the Senate.
I didn't find your statements inherently irritating, just the fact that you googled/wiki'd said topic, and then presented it as original opinion.Anyone can write a bill. This is a common known fact. It's all over google and I can give you a plethora of links for it if you so like.
Here's the wikipedia page about HR 1424 (also known as Public Law 110-343)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Public_Law_110-343
What other sources would you like? I'll gladly find sources for my "irritating" statements.
I don't know what you mean that I presented these ideas as 'original opinion'. I told you my knowledge about the bill, and then gave you a wikipedia reference that supported my knowledge. I don't know what you're trying to insinuate.I didn't find your statements inherently irritating, just the fact that you googled/wiki'd said topic, and then presented it as original opinion.
I'm somewhat guilty of the same thing, in a different context, so I'd be more than happy to present my source, as it were, for the topic on hand.
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He said it was unconstitutional, when in fact it wasn't. That isn't subject, it's what happened. I think it's reasonable to conclude that he either lied, or doesn't understand. I don't really see any other way around it. If there is one, feel free to enlighten me.I think one would learn the ropes fairly well, after serving 34 years as a Congressman.
As far as if he's lying, well, that's certainly a subjective character judgment.
Think whatever you want.
As I understand it, the fact that ANY piece of legislation can be taken which was previously passed by the house, even if it had nothing to do with appropriation, and then have the tax relation legislation "amended" later by the Senate, is the controversial practice in question.He said it was unconstitutional, when in fact it wasn't. That isn't subject, it's what happened. I think it's reasonable to conclude that he either lied, or doesn't understand. I don't really see any other way around it. If there is one, feel free to enlighten me.
Well sure, it's controversial, but it's a completely legal practice and doesn't defy the constitution; it's not unconstitutional.As I understand it, the fact that ANY piece of legislation can be taken which was previously passed by the house, even if it had nothing to do with appropriation, and then have the tax relation legislation "amended" later by the Senate, is the controversial practice in question.
This is what was done with the bailout, as your own source says.
"In practice, the Senate can simply circumvent this requirement by substituting the text of any bill previously passed by the House with the text of a revenue bill, as was done with H.R. 1424[54][55] or the Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act of 1982."
If it isn't against the letter of the law, it's against the spirit.
Which is the point.
You can think what you want, but you're venturing further and further from facts, and into speculation.I think most sane people would agree an "amendment" would require the material to already be there, in some capacity.